QUESTIONS FROM KHER LIANG (4MD)

1. For Act 3 Sc 2, page 183, final line: Why does Juliet talk about death at this point?
When Juliet says to Nurse- 'And bid him come to take his final farewell'- there are several layers of references to her words.
Firstly, Dramatic Irony- audience knows that this will really be the final time the lovers see each other, hence, 'final farewell'.
Secondly, Literal Meaning- Just prior to this, Juliet has found out through Nurse that Romeo has been banished to Mantua. The 'final farewell' is literally the last moments she gets to spend with Romeo.
Finally, Literary technique of foreshadowing. Juliet does not know it, but her words do eventually prove true. The lovers spend the night together in 'final farewell', the only time they have together- they are only reconciled in death, at the end of the play, in the Capels' tomb. 





2. Also, why does Juliet say 'and death, not Romeo, take my maidenhead'?
Here, Juliet's words are prophetic in the sense that it foreshadows what will eventually happen to an extent. She ventures that she will die a virgin (death will take her before she is truly made a woman) instead of surrendering her virginity to Romeo in marriage.

 

3. For Act 4 Sc 1, page 227: Why does the Friar say '(aside) I would I knew not why it should be slowed'- is he trying to say that he knows why it is hastened? But why?
I would = I wish
Hence, the Friar says here that he already knows of a reason as to why the wedding should be 'slowed'- Juliet is already married, to Romeo. However, he also wishes that he did not have that knowledge (of Romeo and Juliet's marriage).

Why does he wish this (no knowledge of Romeo and Juliet's marriage)? Perhaps he now realizes that he will have to continue to pretend that nothing is wrong and officiate Juliet's marriage to Paris (he will have to lie and Juliet will be committing bigamy). Alternatively, he now realizes that the problems regarding Paris' intended marriage to Juliet is a result of the secret marriage that he conducted for the lovers.




4. Page 229: Why does Juliet say to Paris 'the tears have got small victory by that, for it was bad enough before their spite'?
Here, Juliet responds to Paris' comment about how she has 'abused' her face 'with tears'- she has cried so much that it shows very clearly on her face/ has 'disfigured' her face/ made her face unpretty. Juliet's response suggests that she agrees with what Paris has said- her tears have indeed made her less attractive but that her tears are not the only things that have caused her to be unattractive. '...it was bad enough before their spite' implies that other events have taken place that have thrown her into a state of disarray. As the audience, we know that she is possibly referring to Romeo's banishment and being separated from him, which would have caused her much anguish. Similarly, Lord Capulet's insistence that she marry Paris and losing trust in the Nurse would have compounded the sense of isolation and made Juliet even more desperate to find a way to escape what her public self demands of her (subservience as a daughter to her father). This sense of desperation would also help explain the next few lines- why she is so keen to speak with Friar Lawrence.




Any other thoughts, anyone? 
-Ms.Annisa-